Question
If f(x) = sin−1(sin x)+cos−1(sin x) and ϕ(x)=f(f(f(x))),then ϕ′(x) is equal to
Answer: Option C
:
C
f(x)=π2(aconstantfunction)
⇒ϕ′(x)=0
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:
C
f(x)=π2(aconstantfunction)
⇒ϕ′(x)=0
Was this answer helpful ?
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